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Gregory_de_Bois
02-21-2007, 09:49 PM
So, I think a lot of Christians believe that most of the OT Law is no longer applicable, however there is some that they say still applies today. I was wondering how they did that, and then I kind of realized that they determine which OT laws are important in light of what is spoken about them in the New Testament. There is all of Jesus' speech about loving the neighbour, turning the other cheek, no divorce, fornication, saying that hating someone is murder, etc. Paul often does the same. If Paul was talking about pederasts, effeminate call boys and their older men clients, male prostitutes, and pagan temple sex, then couldn't it be said that he was referencing the levitical code, and thus was clarifying those two verses. Does this make any sense? It would make me feel smart if it works. :cool: Has anyone else already thought of this?

andrewlittle
02-21-2007, 10:33 PM
... go ahead and feel smart. I think that is, at the very least, as good an explanation as many others. I hereby dub thee "interpreter".

As to your last question - I don't know. But I am interested enough to delve into it. Goody, something meaty.

(Sigh - I really need a job - I just have too much time on my hands.)

u-dog
02-22-2007, 08:29 AM
Andy, You CLEARLY need SOMETHING to do ... and I am eagerly awaiting what you come up with!

Greg: let me re-iterate what I've said here before (not to you) the Scriptures of BOTH covenants must (for Christians) be viewed through the lens of the PERSON of Jesus Christ. HE IS THE TRUE "WORD OF GOD". Scripture leads the Christian TO Christ and then Christ leads the Christian to an understanding of scripture which leads back to a clearer and deeper understanding of Christ which leads to a deeper understanding of Scripture. Its a kind of spiritual dialectic. Ideally, this dynamic process will keep a person SO ENGAGED IN THEIR OWN SPIRITUAL JOURNEY that they won't have time to wonder about the morality of other peoples sleeping arrangements.