I quote Emproph:
"Most importantly and interesting to me, how can the Bible be assumed to be divinely inerrant when there’s a warning on the last page not to change it?
REV 22:18,19 (New KJV)
18 “I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to
these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book;” 19 and if anyone takes away from
the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and from the things that are written in this book.” (Italics
Seems literal enough for me, but if the Bible, of which Revelations is a part, can ONLY be inerrant, then a warning not to cause error, would be an error. The only other explanation I can see is if the warning itself is an error, which of course, according to the concept of inerrancy, is impossible. Meaning that according to the Bible itself, it is impossible to consider the Bible free from the possibility
of error. Am I missing something?"
I would say you are missing at least one somethings, if not several. In this remarkable bit of literature you have attacked the doctrine of biblical innerrancy using a passage of Scripture, which is logically inconsistent and self-defeating.