Homosexuality is not a sin!
English Bible Mistranslation / Homosexuality
This is not my theological essay. It was originally found at
But if you visit the link now you will see it has been taken down. I wonder why?
"English Bible Mistranslation / Homosexuality
For years, many documents have described the mistranslation of the Bible into English from the original Hebrew and Koine (ancient Greek) New-Testament writings. Issues of incorrect translation concern many areas, such as: the word "virgin" (Isaiah 7:14); the name "Yahweh" (YHWH); descriptions of angels; the term "Sons of God"; and incorrectly translating forbidden sexual practices.
There are several passages often mistranslated as forbidding homosexual activity; however, those Bible passages can be correctly translated by considering many aspects of the Bible, as a whole: literal translation, rarity, priorities, sanity-test and reality-test.
Literal Translation- . In the New Testament, the two verses 1 Corinthians 6:9 & 1 Timothy 1:10 are often mistranslated as condemning homosexuality in English Bibles (but not in the Roman Latin Vulgate Bible or the 1545 German Bible of Martin Luther). Mistranslation is based on two ancient Greek words "malakoi" & "arsenokoitai" (Greek letters "ARSENOKOITAI " literally, "male-beds"), which was a new word used by Paul (Saul) at the time and not a common term for homo-sexuality. Because Paul was speaking in a religious context, the word "arsenokoitai" has been translated as referring to male-pimps or customers in temple prostitution, a common practice in so-called pagan rituals widespread in Temple Cult worship of the time. [The minor term "malakoi" (used to describe "soft" clothing) is non-sexual and has been translated as "effeminate" (KJV), although others state "weaklings" or "morally weak, lazy" men. ]
Rarity of Words- . The ancient Greek word "arsenokoitai" occurs in only those 2 verses, 1 Corinthians 6:9 & 1 Timothy 1:10. Logically, if homosexuality were considered a sin, there should be many verses about it, and the word "arsenokoitai" would occur more than twice if it had referred to a major issue, such as homosexuality; the rarity of the word fits the logical translation: the word "arsenokoitai" refers to the rare practice of temple prostitution, not general homosexuality. (See: 73 references to arsenokoit* found in TLG E Feb/2000, ) Yet, precisely because the word is so rare and had no formal definition, the word "arsenokoitai" is crucial in fostering misinterpretation of the Bible: a more common word could not be so easily redefined.
Priorities - . The verses in the Bible follow certain priorities: for example, the words "adultery" or "adulteress/adulterer" (Greek "moixoi" ) occur 47 times in the King James Version; however, the word "arsenokoitai" occurs only 2 times, and the common terms of that time period about homosexual activity are not mentioned in the Bible at all (such as man-boy pairing, Greek "erastes-eromenos"). Condemning homosexuality in Biblical times was not an issue, not a priority, at all.
A Sanity- Test - . Since adultery & adulterer are mentioned 47 times in the King James Version, it could be expected that a sin would be mentioned many times in the Bible: the condemnation of lying/liars occurs over 70 times ("liar" 21 times, "false witness" 19, "lying" lips/tongues 31 times); murder is prohibited 35+ times ("murderer" 20 etc. ); and stealing is condemned 73+ times ("steal" 23 times, "thief/robber" 50+, except stealing for food: Proverbs 6:30 "Men do not despise a thief, if he steal to satisfy his soul when he is hungry. " [KJV]). However, the common terms (used in those days) to describe homosexual activity are not even mentioned. It doesn't make sense to translate a few rare words & phrases as condemning homosexuality, when specific sins are mentioned many times in the Bible--it simply doesn't pass a sanity-test.
A Reality- Test - . During the time period of 1 Corinthians 6:9 & 1 Timothy^ 1:10,:the word "arsenokoitai" occurred in only a few religious writings, such as a later text describing Adam deceived to have sex with serpent-god Naas. The erotic literature of the period never used the word "arsenokoitai" but used other ancient Greek terms ("erastes-eromenos": man-boy pairing) to describe homosexual practices, and those Greek terms were never mentioned in the Greek texts of the Bible. To try to re-interpret & translate other Bible verses into condemning those specific (unnamed) acts is just not realistic--it doesn't pass a reality-test ("reality_check"). The translation of the ancient Greek New Testament must fit the language & cultures of the time period. The translation must match the reality of that era.
Old-Testament Literal Translation - . The infamous verse Leviticus 20:13, often used to condemn homosexuality, is about a married-man with another male, in the "marriage-bed" as with his wife. See the Latinized Greek for Leviticus 20:13 below:
Kai hos an koimEthE meta arsenos koitEn
gunaikos, bdelugma epoiEsan amphoteroi;
thanatousthwsan, enoichoi eisin. " [Lev 20:13 in Greek Septuagint LXX].
The translation of the Greek term 'gunaikos' is interpreted to mean: wife. Hence, the verse actually forbids male-male adultery, pertaining only to a married man.
Similarly, for Leviticus 18:22, the wording of the original Hebrew is very different from the KJV form:
"Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind:
it is abomination. " [Leviticus 18:22, King James Version]
However, the original Hebrew for Leviticus 18:22 reveals a different 3rd meaning:
We-et-zakar lo' tishkav mishkevey 'ishshah" [Lev 18:22 Hebrew, Latinized]
("And-with a-male NOT lie-down in beds-of a-woman") [Lev 18:22 literal translation]
So, the Hebrew Leviticus 18:22 mentions: someone + a male + a woman; hence, a forbidden 3-way.
Those 2 infamous Leviticus verses actually mention other women or wives, rather than male-male relationships, as is often the misinterpretation & mistranslation.
When many aspects of Biblical issues are considered, there is no textual basis for misinterpreting & mistranslating Bible verses to condemn homosexuality: the original Hebrew & Greek texts of the Bible do not condemn homosexuality at all, and so, homosexuality should not be considered a sin by today's society.
Finally, the question arises: In 1611, did the Bible translators/scribes for King James purposely mistranslate Bible verses into English because they had intensely resented King James, with his open homosexuality & various male lovers? The answer might never be known.
In the new book: A Gathering of Angels by Larry Dean. Hamilton, several incidents of God's approval are described in detail, including several spiritual events similar to visions. Note: That book is a true story, not a hypothetical religious sermon, but rather an accurate description of some astounding ways in which God actually works His plan. In:A Gathering of Angels, the author describes many real-life events in vivid detail as they happened, so there was too little room for ideology, and that book contains very few Bible quotations. The book is, in essence, a detailed secret revelation of divine approval for same-sex love.
A Gathering of Angels (by Larry Dean. Hamilton) describes actual spiritual events in modern times, and those incidents match the teachings from the original texts of the Bible, before the King James. Version mistranslated some verses to condemn homosexuality.
Addendum - . Many of the English-language Bibles have been mistranslated to condemn homosexuality, not only the 1611 King James Version. Below is a list of several English Bibles along with the phrase that translates the ancient Greek word "arsenokoitai" (1 Corinthians 6:9), which many scholars now believe means "male-pimps" or "molesters. " Note the year of each Bible & its translation of "arsenokoitai":
- King_James_Version (KJV 1611) "abusers of themselves with mankind"
- Wycliffe_New_Testament (WYC 2001) "they that do lechery with men"
- American_Standard_Version (ASV 1901) "abusers of themselves with men"
- New_Life (NLV1969) "people who do sex sins with their own sex"
- 21st_Century_KJV (KJ21 1994) "abusers of themselves with mankind"
- New_American_Standard (NASB 1995) "nor effeminate, nor homosexuals"
- New_International_Version (NIV 1984) "homosexual offenders"
- Amplified_Bible (1987) "nor those who participate in homosexuality"
- Darby_Translation (public domain) "nor who abuse themselves with men"
- Young's_Literal_Translation "nor effeminate, nor sodomites"
- New_Living_Translation (NLT^ 1996) "male prostitutes, homosexuals"
- Contemporary_English_Version (1995) "behaves like a homosexual"
Holman_Christian_Standard (HCSB 2003) "male prostitutes, homosexuals"
Whereas the original Greek text of 1 Corinthians 6:9 apparently condemns cult male-pimps and child-molesters, it has been perverted in many English Bibles to condemn all homosexual behavior.
Similarly, Deuteronomy 23:17 is often mistranslated, about the prohibition against ritual temple cult/shrine prostitution, specifically by either the "daughters" or "sons" of Irsael, by mistranslating the Hebrew word "qadesh" to be "sodomite" or "pervert" etc. For instance in the Amplified Bible, the verse of Deuteronomy 23:17 reads:
"There shall be no cult prostitute among the daughters of Israel, neither
shall there be a cult prostitute (a sodomite) among the sons of Israel. " [Deut 23:17]
The Hebrew text contains no word for "sodomite" but uses the male & female forms of the same word "qadesh" ("holy one") referring to either a male or a female holy sex-slave in the shrine ritual.
Proper translation of Bible texts requires cultural knowledge of the time period, including pagan temple/shrine rituals of cult prostitution & also knowledge of same-sex relationships during the period."
This one is my essay:
What do you think the Bible says about homosexuality? Before you answer, I want you that I have researched to know that the word "homosexual" did not even exist until the 1800s. It was added into the BIble later. And I found out that there was no word in Greek, Aramaic, or Hebrew texts for "homosexual."
K. M. Kertbeny (1824 -1882) invented the word "homosexual" in 1869
Carl Westphal (1833 - 1890) invented the disease homosexuality in 1870
Finally, in 1973, the American Psychiatric Association removed the diagnosis from its manual. Homosexuality was no longer considered a mental disorder, as this claim cannot be proven.
In my sociology book, I learned that 1/3 of all of teenage suicides are homosexuals. Because of their persecution and other's hatred and public humiliation of them.
I have researched the claims of the following webpage and I have believe it to be true. I would like for you to do some research for yourself on the subject.
It is found at
"The words "homosexual" and "homosexuality" do not appear in the Bible-at least they are absent from the original Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek texts. The authors of the Bible did not understand sexual orientation; this concept was only developed in the late 19th century. The writers had little or no comprehension of same-sex committed relationships. Their languages had no words for these concepts. Rather, they assumed that everyone was heterosexual, but that some heterosexuals engaged in sex with persons of the same gender. Thus, when you see one of these terms in an English translation of the Bible, it is important to dig deeper and find what the original Hebrew or Greek text really means. The word "homosexual" first appeared in the New Revised Standard (RSV) Bible in 1946.
Traditional Church teaching falsely misuses the Bible to judge the homosexual lifestyle. True Biblical theology begins not with Church tradition and dogma but with the biblical texts themselves. Biblical theology seeks to understand how the biblical authors expressed themselves in the Koine Greek of the time (not expanded by later modern greek meanings), in terms of their culture. Only with this understanding is it legitimate to define biblical sexual ethics of the NT and find implications for today.
There is little said in the bible about homosexuality because it was no big deal! It occupied a prominent and respected position in most Greek and Roman cities at all levels of society and among a substantial part of the population. There are only 4 scriptures that are taken to say anything about homosexuality; the Leviticus laws, I Cor 6:9, Romans 1:26-27, and the story of Sodom and Gomorrah - and none address loving, consenting homosexual acts as we know them today.
There are over 600 individual "laws" in the Levitical code, the breaking of anyone of which would make the sinner unclean and unacceptable to God. It is an abomination to eat pork, etc. The law is no longer in effect and its purpose was to show that man could never follow it. The sins of Sodom and Gomorrah, likewise have nothing to do with homosexuality.
I Cor 6:9, no way refers to homosexuality. The original Greek word often quoted as sexual immorality, Paul used was "porneia" which means "a harlot for hire". In Corinth in the temples of Venus, the principal deity of Corinth, where Christians went to worship, a thousand public prostitutes were kept at public expense to glorify and act as surrogates for the fertility Gods. This sex with the pagan Gods is what Paul was talking about - fornication is an admitted mistranslation and has nothing to do with gays or singles sex. This rendering reflected the bias of the translators rather than an accurate translation of Paul's words to a culture of 2000 years ago worshipping pagan sex gods.
Romans 1:26-27 mentions homosexual acts performed by people who are clearly described as heterosexual. The men in the NT patriarchal culture exerted dominance not only over women, but over younger males as well. The nature of homosexual acts in the Bible are so very different from what we know as homosexuality today that the passages have no application to today's homosexuality. Such practices as in NT times simply no longer exist. Alleged references to homosexuality in I Corinthians and I Timothy are the inventions of anti-gay translators. They are not in the original Greek texts."
Jesus spoke of marriage between man and woman:
"And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female, 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh? 6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder. " Matthew 19:4-5
He then said something interesting.
The law is given to whom it applies:
Jesus said, "But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given. 12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it." Matthew 19:12
The law of marriage clearly does not apply to the eunichs who were born without penis', or those who cut thier penis' off for Christ''s sake, as some during the time period did. It is important to understand that if a man is born without genetalia, the law of marriage does not apply to him, for he cannot unite with a wife. There are many people that are born hermaphrodites (both sets of genitals), and therefore the law of does not apply to them in the same way, for they can choose to take a husband or a wife, or another hermaphrodite to be their partner. It is their own choice.
I have read journals of homosexuals crying out to God "Help me! Why did you make me like this? Am I going to Hell? I have always felt this way, but I ask you God to take these desires away from me!" They are killing themselves across America out of fear, desperation, and frustration with their bodies and their feelings. It sounds to me more like a struggle against an inborn trait, not a struggle against sin. For I do not think that very many people ever killed themselves over the guilt of thier sin. A few, perhaps those who murdered other people, but not many.
I have heard horror stories of these homosexuals getting "treatment," and psychologits using "shock therapy" to try and make them disgusted with homosexuality. You can imagine how difficult it is for the same psychologist to try and make a straight person go gay using this "shock therapy." There is not one success that I have heard of using this method. In the same way as it is nigh impossible to make a straight man gay, it is equally near impossible to make a gay man straight.
What do think about this? I have had many close gay and bisexual friends in my lifetime, as you can clearly see, so I ventured to find out what the original translations of the Bible actually said about a loving, exclusive, homosexual marriage. And I found out that the Bible says nothing about this, except that Jesus did say, "But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given." And I believe that people who are homosexual cannot recieve this saying, for I believe they were born that way, just as eunichs and hermaphrodites are also born that way.